Exam questions for obtaining aircraft licenses and ratings

PPL(A) -

1. Following an aviation accident in the Republic of Serbia, to which of the following must the accident be reported as expeditiously as possible?

2. If a pilot judges that his aircraft is in grave and imminent danger, his message should begin with thewords:

3. Which one of the following statements is false? An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go flying and until everyone has left it:

4. Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident?

5. If a pilot elects to make a distress or urgency call, on which frequency should he first transmit, as an alternative to 121.5 MHz?

6. In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during take off and climb should not be required unless the aircraft has reached:

7. Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?

8. It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the planned flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should consult:

9. Before flight it is the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly registered, is airworthy and has been maintained properly. To this end he must check a variety of documents. Which one of the following is not required to be checked?

10. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running are display lights to indicate this. Which one of the following is used for this purpose?

11. For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following lights:

12. In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti collision light has failed. What course of action should he take?

13. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?

14. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?

15. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could be found in :

16. What frequency should be monitored by an aircraft when taking-off from an airfield inside the territory of the Republic of Serbia without published frequency?

17. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting is not readily available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to :

18. What unit of measurement is in use in aviation when vertical velocity parameters are reported?

19. What units of measurement are in use in aviation when wind parameters are reported to the pilot (with the exception of takeoff and landing)?

20. During a walk around check you move the control column of your aircraft to one side and notice that the up-aileron deflects more than the down-aileron. You would normally :

21. When tying down an aircraft, when should some slack be left in the rope?

22. What should be done if your aircraft engine overheats while taxiing?

23. What is the proper pilot procedure in case of a popped-out circuit breaker?

24. If an engine failure is accompanied by mechanical noise and the propeller stops rotating, the cause of the engine failure is most likely :

25. Following a sudden and complete loss of power from the engine, there is no mechanical noise and the propeller continues to windmill. The likely cause of the power loss is :

26. What should you do if your cylinder head temperature drops too low during an approach to land or in a glide?

27. What is the reason for shutting down an aviation reciprocating engine using the mixture lever rather than the ignition switch?

28. What initial precaution should be taken by the pilot when parking an aircraft with a magneto that is unable to be grounded because of a faulty connection in the ignition switch?

29. What is the most reliable practical method of checking the fuel level in the reservoirs of an aircraftwhile on ground?

30. Why should you check a sample of fuel from the sump and filter before each flight?

31. Which fuel contaminant is the most difficult to isolate with simple filter systems?

32. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the :

33. What is the best way to reduce the possibility of water contamination in fuel tanks?

34. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will :

35. What happens if the filler cap comes loose on one of your wing fuel tanks?

36. What will happen if the fuel primer pump is not locked enough after its use?

37. What is the reason for most of the refuelling fires caused by static electricity sparks?

38. What is the specific mass of aviation gasoline?

39. 1 USA gallon of AVGAS 100 LL weights :

40. 53 liters of AVGAS 100 LL weights :

41. Aviation gasoline 80/87 grade is colored?

42. Aviation gasoline 100/130 grade is colored?

43. Aviation gasoline 100LL is colored :

44. What fuel should you use in your aircraft if the specified grade is not available?

45. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause :

46. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

47. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when :

48. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause :

49. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

50. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

51. When an engine is started up, the pilot should monitor oil pressure. If the engine is cold prior to start up, it should be :

52. What should normally be done if after start-up of a hot four-stroke aviation engine oil pressure does not reach proper level?

53. The most probable reason for propeller back-rotating during starting of an reciprocating aviation engine is :

54. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is :

55. When and where should the pilot check the aircraft wheel brakes?

56. A reading 5 inhg on the vacuum gauge of an aircraft is the indication of :

57. A reading 2 inhg on the vacuum gauge of an aircraft is the indication of :

58. When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set?

59. The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by :

60. How frequently should the aviation magnetic compass be swung?

61. The pilot could normally check the state of charge of the oleo-pneumatic units during a walkaround inspection by :

62. The red creep marks on the main tyre and the wheel of an aircraft serve for :

63. If a tyre has moved so that the creep marks are out of alignment, then :

64. Braking of an individual main wheel is known as :

65. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?

66. How should the flight controls be deflected while taxiing a tailwheel aeroplane with a strong tailwind?

67. What would be most likely to cause an upset while taxiing a nose-wheel equipped aircraft in strong wind?

68. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering tailwind?

69. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

70. Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

71. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?

72. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

73. If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster :

74. To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the:

75. As an airplane climbs to higher altitudes with the mixture control set in RICH, the fuel/air mixture:

76. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

77. To properly compensate for a crosswind during straight-and-level cruising flight, the pilot should :

78. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

79. Correct procedure for leaning the mixture during cruise is pulling the mixture level back towards LEAN until RPM will :

80. If, during start-up a fire occurs in the engine air intake, a generally suitable procedure is to :

81. What is indicated by black smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-up?

82. What is indicated by blue smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-up?

83. How should the mixture control be set for takeoff at sea level?

84. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting :

85. During cruise flight you apply full carburetor heat to your aircraft with fixed-pitch propeller. What is the expected effect in RPM under normal conditions?

86. During engine run-up test on ground the pilot can check the proper functioning of carburetor heating by moving the carburetor heat lever to HOT and noting :

87. The carburetor heat during taxi should be used with caution due to :

88. How should you select propeller pitch for takeoff if your aircraft has a constant speed propeller?

89. In an airplane with a controllable pitch propeller, power reduction should be made by first reducing :

90. When transiting an airplane with a constant-speed propeller from a cruise to a climb, the pilot should :

91. Shortly after an aviation engine start-up you noticed on the left-zero ammeter a high current reading despite of all electrical consumers not connected? You should normally :

92. What is the meaning of the zero reading on a left-zero ammeter in flight?

93. How could you recognize by the indication of the left-zero ammeter a non-functioning aircraft alternator? The instrument reading should be :

94. Shortly after aircraft engine start-up you notice that the pointer of a center-zero ammeter is deflected to the right with electrical consumers switched off. This indication means :

95. What may zero reading on the center-zero ammeter in flight indicates?

96. In flight you notice that the pointer of a center-zero ammeter is deflected to the left. What does this indication mean and what should you as the pilot of an aircraft normally do?

97. In flight you notice the orange light glowing on the instrumental panel. What does this mean?

98. An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would :

99. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is :

100. Can the downdraft air currents occurring as a result of wingtip vortices from a heavier aircraft exceed the climb capability of a light aircraft?

101. What is the most likely cause of the dangerous turbulence behind heavy aircraft?

102. What precautions are required when stopping a light aircraft behind a heavy aircraft that is stopped on the manoeuvring area?

103. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by :

104. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying :

105. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

106. How long will wake turbulence remain after the passage of a large aircraft?

107. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft up to and including 13,000 ft MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used by all crew members :

108. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000 ft MSL, sufficient supplemental oxygen should be carried to supply

109. Following separation of the airflow from one wing and banking and slipping to one side, the pilot would prevent an aircraft of developing a full spin by :

110. Choose the correct procedure for spin recovery in an aeroplane?

111. Choose the correct action for steep spiral recovery.

112. One of the main function of flaps during the approach and landing is to :

113. The main benefit of using flaps during approach and land is to :

114. Wing flaps at the recommended takeoff setting :

115. Wing flaps at the recommended landing setting :

116. What effect does extended wing flaps have on the stalling speed? The stalling speed will :

117. During landing close to the surface and at low airspeed, it could be dangerous to retract wing flaps, because of :

118. Wing flaps at takeoff are not set to fully deflected position to avoid :

119. That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for : (see Figure PPL OP1)

120. According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? (see Figure PPL OP-1)

121. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot :

122. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

123. What is the difference between area A and area B on the airport depicted? : (see Figure PPL OP-1)

124. Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a (see Figure PPL OP-1)

125. The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area : (see Figure PPL OP-2)

126. The numbers 4 and 22 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately : (see Figure PPL OP-2)

127. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by :

128. Which of the following describes threshold lights?

129. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be :

130. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished :

131. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall :

132. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall :

133. A slightly high-glide-slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is :

134. A below-glide-slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

135. An above-glide-slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

136. An on-glide-slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

137. A below-glide-slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

138. Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is (see Figure PPL OP-3)

139. Illustration C indicates that the aircraft is (see Figure PPL OP-3)

140. Illustration B indicates that the aircraft is (see Figure PPL OP-3)

141. On the controlled airport you noticed a square yellow board bearing a black 'C', exposed above one of the doors (Picture C). What does that mean? (see Figure PPL OP-4

142. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip (Picture B) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

143. What is the meaning of the visual ground signal in a form of a horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals displayed in an airport signal area (Picture A)? (see Figure PPL OP-4)

144. A white cross, placed horizontally on the beginning of the taxiway (picture G), means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

145. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a double white cross (Picture H) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

146. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell (Picture D) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

147. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell with black stripes on each circular portion at right angles to the shaft (Picture E) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

148. What marking may be displayed by day on an aerodrome to indicate unserviceability of any portion of a manoeuvring area?

149. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a sign (Picture I), means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

150. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white 'T' (Picture F) means: (see Figure PPL OP-4)

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