Exam questions for obtaining aircraft licenses and ratings

PPL(A) -

1. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?

2. The State of licence issue of a JAA PPL may be changed to a new member State providing:

3. No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may participate in international navigation:

4. Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?

5. The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be:

6. .Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a JAA PPL (A)?

7. Which body is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft operating in a state's sovereign airspace complies with the rules and regulations which prevail in that airspace?

8. What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention

9. A PPL holder is not permitted to:

10. Complete the following wording with one of the options at a), b), or below to give the most correct statement. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing:

11. .The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must:

12. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

13. When are navigation lights required to be shown?

14. When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?

15. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?

16. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?

17. Which of a), b), c) and d), below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are on final approach:

18. Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, an aircraft may not fly closer than a), b), or to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?

19. Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, one of which is receiving a Radar Information Service (RIS), are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. There is, thus, a high risk of collision. The fact that one aircraft is receiving an RIS is immaterial to the situation. The Rules of the Air apply. Therefore, the aircraft which has the other on its left has right of way and should maintain:

20. While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there a risk of collision? And who has right of way?

21. If a PPL holder who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:

22. A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes is known as:

23. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

24. How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?

25. If a PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, he must:

26. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

27. If an aircraft marshaller holds his right arm down and repeatedly moves his left arm upward and backward it means:

28. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?

29. What colour are paved taxiway markings?

30. What color are runway markings?

31. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:

32. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?

33. What action should a pilot take if he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC?

34. Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees?

35. A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome should initiate his descent to below transition level with the altimeter subscale set to:

36. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What period of separation is required?

37. What is the definition of 'transition level“?

38. An aeroplane has a maximum take-off mass of 136,000 kg. What is its wake turbulence category?

39. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?

40. A PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with SVFR must have the following minima:

41. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

42. Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use' on an uncontrolled airfield?

43. Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds

44. Where the Certificate of Registration must for an aircraft is kept while the aircraft is flying?

45. Flying hours to be credited for a licence or rating must have been flown:

46. The holder of a JAA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding:

47. If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that he is to undergo surgery, what are his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority?

48. How long is a JAA PPL (A) issued for?

49. The skills test for a JAA PPL (A) must be taken within _________ of completing flying instruction.

50. Application for the grant of a JAA PPL (A) licence must be made within_____ completing the theoretical knowledge examinations.

51. A pilot's licence issued by one JAA member State may be converted to a licence of any other JAA member State (the new member State), provided that:

52. There are three conditions that a holder of a JAA PPL (A) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement?

53. Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraft documentation is carried on an international flight?

54. The departure and arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log book is taken as follows:

55. How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?

56. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of JAR-FCL receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects his ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:

57. The privileges of the IMC rating:

58. Which of the following ratings on a JAA PPL (A) precludes the requirement for a separate Night Rating to be held by a private pilot who wishes to fly as PIC at night?

59. An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence must be at least

60. When should the student pilot present his Pilot Medical Certificate?

61. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?

62. What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot?

63. At least how many hours of dual instructions on aeroplane must have an applicant for a PPL (A)?

64. How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator?

65. At least how long must be the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot Licence skill test, and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes shall be made at this flight?

66. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of airplanes must have an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence?

67. What does the term 'solo flight time' mean?

68. To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of PPL(A) must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

69. The three takeoffs and landings during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an airplane carrying passengers at night must be done during the time period from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

70. The Flight Time is the total time from the moment

71. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-incommand and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is

72. Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a private pilot licence fly, provided he is properly endorsed?

73. As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class rating?

74. How long is the period before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done?

75. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the private licence holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same

76. With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

77. With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

78. The pilot or student pilot, when becoming aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours, surgical operation or invasive procedure, the regular use of medication, the regular use of correcting lenses,

79. In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended?

80. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?

81. Maximum validity of the pilot licence is

82. The validity of a pilot licence is determined by the validity of

83. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

84. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

85. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine

86. Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

87. Which best describes the flight conditions under which pilots are specifically required to keep their safety harness fastened?

88. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of seat belts?

89. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

90. The person directly responsible for the prelaunch briefing of passengers for a flight is

91. What does 'AAL' mean?

92. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the 'Cruising Speed' block of an ICAO Flight Plan?

93. What should be entered into the 'LEVEL' block of an ICAO VFR Flight Plan?

94. What is the meaning of 'WIP'?

95. An aircraft is in controlled airspace under ATC control. The responsibility for ensuring adequate terrain clearance rests with:

96. The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight

97. The vertical limits of a control zone are

98. What is the definition of a term 'Control Zone'?

99. A part of an airspace of defined dimensions above defined area where flights are not allowed, is called

100. Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

101. What is the definition of the term 'Controlled Airspace'?

102. The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the

103. Who is responsible for the adequate safe separation between VFR flights in the air

104. Which rules of the air apply to an aircraft registered in the Republic of Slovenia while flying outside the native aerospace?

105. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the earth is

106. What is the lateral dimension of the airspace at the inner side of the state border, where all aircraft need to obtain special permission for flying within it?

107. When flying a sport aircraft above the territory of the Republic of Slovenia, supplementaloxygen shall be used at the altitude above mean sea level greater than.

108. What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or over open-air assembly of people?

109. When flying visually in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, the pilot of an aircraft must maintain the vertical separation from clouds at least

110. Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft), is permitted if the horizontal visibility is at least

111. When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should

112. The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class G airspace at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is higher, is

113. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

114. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D

115. Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least

116. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4,500 feet MSL and 9,000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain at least:

117. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

118. A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight altitudes, higher than

119. Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL, while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation value is 20°W?

120. A pilot-in-command of a VFR cruising flight at the altitudes over 3,000 ft MSL, should fly odd flight levels plus 500 ft, if maintains

121. Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic?

122. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

123. When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, which way should each aircraft turn?

124. What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course?

125. How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course?

126. What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a head-on collision course?

127. What should the glider pilot do, if on head-on collision course with the two-engined Cessna?

128. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

129. Which of the statements listed, concerning the right-of-way when two aircraft converge, but not head-on, is correct?

130. While in final gliding flight toward airfield, a glider pilot notices an aerotow, closing from his left side. What action should the glider pilot in free flight take?

131. Which aircraft must give way at converging of a glider and an airplane in free flight?

132. With your aeroplane on an IFR flight in airspace class D, you receive a traffic information from ATC, that an helicopter on VFR flight is going to cross your flight path from right to left. Who has the right-of-way?

133. Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way

134. Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude?

135. An airplane and another airplane, towing a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is on the left of the airplane, which has the right-of-way?

136. Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of-way during landing, is correct?

137. When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should

138. A night flying inside the territory of Republic Serbia is defined by the state regulations as a flying between

139. Which minimum life-saving equipment is recommended to be on board of a non-commercial flight of a single-engined landplane when flying en route over water beyond gliding distance from the shore?

140. What is the distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing at which must an extended over water non-commercial flight of a multi-engined aeroplane capable of continuing flight with one engine inoperative carry additional to appropriate number of life jackets sufficient number of life-saving rafts and the equipment for making the pyrotechnical distress signals?

141. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entriesin the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service

142. How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected by the authorized person?

143. Requested national mark of an aircraft registered in the Republic of Serbia is

144. An ATC clearance provides

145. What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from a rule?

146. If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances, he has to

147. When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should

148. During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean?

149. During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip, flying along for a while, then rocking the wings and commencing a shallow turn to the right. What does this mean?

150. During a cross-country flight you find yourself in the vicinity of an unknown airport. A military aircraft approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the landing gear. What does this mean?